Saq questions from demt discussion Group: November 2014 Note


Download 0.57 Mb.
Date conversion29.03.2017
Size0.57 Mb.
1   2   3   4   5

50. A 2 week old term baby weighing 4kg is brought to the ED with difficulty breathing and floppiness.
Her vital signs are as follows:

HR 160 /min

BP 65/35 mmHg

Sat 83 % on air

Temp 37.6 °C

CRT 4 seconds

She is lethargic, and will respond to voice.

a. List 4 differentials for her presentation.

Must include – sepsis, congenital heart disease
T trauma/NAI

H heart (CHD), hypovolaemia

E electrolyte imbalance

M metabolic disease – CAH


S Sepsis/infection

F formula related

I intestinal (volvulus/NEC)

T thyroid

S seizures

b. List your treatment priorities in sequential order. (4 marks)
Airway/breathing – airway manouveurs and oxygen – improve saturations, if persistent hypoxia will likely require RSI
Treat shock – IV access, IO if unable and IV fluid – 10-20ml/kg bolus (smaller bolus in case of CHD), reassess and repeat
Seek/treat hypoglycaemia 2ml/kg 10% dextrose
Source control – Assume sepsis and empirically treatment with antibiotics – cefotaxime 100mg/kg and amoxicillin 50mg/kg
If CHD strongly suspected – prostaglandin
c. You decide to intubate this baby. What 2 sizes of ETT will you prepare?
3 + 3.5mm

51. A 4 year old boy presents to the ED with cough, stridor and fever.

a. List 4 causes of stridor in this patient. (4 marks)


Bacterial tracheitis

Retropharyngeal abscess

Angiooedema/anaphylaxis (with concurrent febrile illness)

Inhaled FB (with concurrent febrile illness)

b. List 4 features on history or examination that would make epiglottitis a more likely diagnosis. (4 marks)
Not immunised

Acute onset of illness

Toxic/shocked appearance

Very high fever


Cough minimal or absent

Low pitched stridor
c. In a patient with suspect epiglottitis, what are your management priorities? (2 marks)
Keep child as calm as possible, avoid unnecessary interventions

Secure airway – ideally in theatre with gas induction

Source control – 3rd generation cephalosporin (cover HiB + others)

52. A 12 month old child presents to ED with a widespread red rash and difficulty breathing shortly after eating peanut butter for the first time.
Her vital signs are

HR 150 /min

Sat 88 %A with wheeze, no stridor

RR 50 /min

BP 60/30 mmHg

GCS 15/15

a. What is the initial dose and route of administration of adrenaline (1:1000) in millilitres for this patient? Show your working. (3 marks)

Expected weight for a 1 year old = (1 + 4)x2 = 10kg

Dose of adrenaline = 0.01 ml/kg of 1:1000 = 0.1ml IM

b. List 4 other treatments (with doses) that you would consider giving as adjuncts to IM adrenaline. (4 marks)
20ml/kg (200ml) 0.9% NaCl bolus

Salbutamol nebuliser 5mg

Adrenaline nebuliser 5mg

Hydrocortisone 4mg/kg (40mg) IV or prednisolone 2mg/kg = 20mg

Antihistamine – Cetirizine 2.5mg or chlorpheniramine 2mg

Oxygen at 6L per minute/to maintain sats >92%

Not promethazine – contraindicated in <2
c. After a period of observation you decide to discharge the child with a prescription for an EpiPen. List 3 important pieces of discharge advice. (3 marks)
Educate how and when to use EpiPen (action plan)

Warn about biphasic reaction. Watch for return of symptoms – administer epipen and return immediately to ED – call 111

Avoid all foods with peanuts (read labels/ask when eating out) +/- tree nuts

See GP in 24-48h for review

53. A 3 month old girl is brought in to ED with pallor and lethargy for the past hour. She has had fevers and URTI symptoms for the past 3 days.
Her observations are as follows:

GCS 15/15 but floppy/lethargic

HR 250 /min

BP 75/45 mmHg

CRT 2 seconds

Sat 95 %A

Temp 38.2 °C

This is her ECG.

a. What is the most likely diagnosis? (1 mark)
b. What are 2 features of the ECG that support this diagnosis? (2 marks)
Rate is extremely fast – too fast for sinus tachycardia

Narrow complex

No P waves seen
c. List 3 treatment options in the order of escalation that you would perform them. (3 marks)
Vagal manouveurs – dunk head in ice water or cold face cloth dropped on face

Adenosine IV 100mcg/kg (can double dose Q2min up to 400mcg)

(Amiodarone IV 5mg/kg over 30 min)

DCCV cardioversion – sync 0.25-0.5J/kg (with sedation)

d. List 4 investigations you would perform in the ED and their justification. (4 marks)
BSL/glucose – prolonged tachycardia could cause hypoglycaemia, hypoglycaemia as cause of floppiness

FBC – anaemia leading to circulatory collapse, inc or dec WCC (sepsis)

Electrolytes/renal function – potassium/calcium/magnesium – deficiencies leading to arrhythmia

CXR – look for cardiomegaly/signs of CHD/myocarditis, signs of LVF, focal infection

Septic screen (blood culture, urine, consider LP) – sepsis as cause of SVT

Urine toxicology screen – as cause of arrhythmia

54. A 32 year old woman presents to your tertiary ED from her GP.
She has been referred with a letter stating:
“Thank you for reviewing this 32 year old who has recently returned from a trip to the UK, she has pleuritic chest pain and I am concerned about a possible PE.”

a. Name 3 risk stratification tools that you use to guide your assessment. (3 marks)



Modified Geneva
b. You calculate a Wells score of 3. What is the patient’s risk of PE? (1 mark)
c. A D dimer is 1100 and you need to discuss imaging with the patient. List 3 benefits and 3 negatives of CTPA. (3 marks)

  • Benefits (any of) – effective gold standard test, sensitive compared to VQ, evaluates clot burden may give alternative diagnosis, available to ED, relatively rapid, minimally invasive (cc angiogram)

  • Negatives (any of) – radiation, contrast allergy, contrast nephrotoxicity, difficult IV access difficult, expensive, can miss small sub-segmental (particularly if older gen CT).

d. The CTPA is positive for bilateral proximal PEs. The patient has a BP of 100/70 mmHg, HR 98 /min, SpO2 94% RA. How could you risk stratify her further with regards to possible treatment? (3 marks - need to only list 3 to score 2.5, 4 scores 3 marks)

  • Echo – signs of RV strain

  • Troponin and/or BNP elevation

  • Subjective distress or breathlessness

  • ECG changes of RVH

55. A 4 year old boy presents to your ED at 1830h with his mother. He has had a runny nose, cough and wheeze for 2 days. His past history includes asthma and eczema since 18 months of age. He has required several hospital admissions for asthma.
a. List 6 important clinical signs when assessing this child. (3 marks, 0.5 marks each)

Level of consciousness

Respiratory rate (<20 or > 40)

Work of breathing – use of accessory muscles


Chest auscultation – presence of wheeze / lack of b/s eg silent chest

PEFR – if able (likely to be too young)


Ability to speak – words vs short sentences vs long sentences

b. He does not have an oxygen requirement and is assessed as “mild”. List treatment in ED including doses. (1 mark, 0.5 marks each)
Salbutamol 100mcg per puff via MDI and spacer 6 puffs per dose (accept slight variation depending on region)

or Salbutamol via nebuliser 2.5mg – 5mg

Prednisolone 1mg/kg (accept alternative steroid if dose appropriate)

c. The child improves and you wish to educate his mother in spacer and MDI technique and in spacer care. List 6 points that you will cover. (3 marks, 0.5 marks each)
Shake the MDI vigorously

Prime the spacer with 10 puffs of salbutamol (accept 6-12 puffs)

Hold the spacer tightly against the child’s face (may require two operators)

Deliver 1 puff then wait for 6 breaths

Deliver a total of 6 puffs

Wash the spacer in warm soapy water

Do not rinse the spacer

Allow to drip dry

d. List discharge criteria and advice you would give his parents. (3 marks, 0.5 marks each)

Sustained improvement with no requirement for salbutamol for > 2 hours

No O2 requirement

Adequate access to transport and phone

Safe distance from hospital

Competent and willing parents or caregiver

No prior hx of ventilation or ICU admissions

No prior hx of precipitous rapid decline

Adequate community follow-up

Action plan for parents – return if requires > 4 hourly salbutamol (accept range 2-4 hourly)

56. A factory worker presents to your department with 3% body surface area burns to his hands and forearms from a 100% hydrofluoric acid solution.
a. What percentage of body surface area burns would be expected to be associated with systemic toxicity from this acid and how does it cause toxicity?
2.5% BSA

Fluoride ions bind to calcium’s & magnesium resulting in cell dysfunction and death.

Systemic toxicity and ventricular dysrhythmias occur secondary to hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia and acidosis.
b. List 3 investigations that may be useful to help determine further management of this patient and describe the abnormality that may be detected.
ECG : low Ca -> QT prolongation

Serum/ionized Ca – at presentation & Q4 hrly – likely to be low Ca.

Serum Mg – may also be low.

VBG – to detect acidosis

BSL – low/high may be an alternative cause for altered LOC
c. Name the antidote used to treat hydrofluoric acid toxicity.
d. List 3 routes by which it may be administered and the dose typically used for each route.
Topically to the skin as a gluconate gel (2.5%) -this can be applied immediately to the skin after exposure until pain resolves.
Intradermally – difficult in the fingers to give adequate volume.

Usual dose = 0.5ml/cm2 of Ca Gluconate (avoid Ca CO3)

Regional IV infusion -eg. with Biers Block- Dilute 1g of Ca Gluconate in 40mls of N saline, infuse into the arm and leave the cuff inflated for 20 minutes.

Intra-arterial infusion - dilute 1 ampoule of Ca gluconate in 40 ml normal saline & infuse over 4 hrs. Can be repeated as necessary.

57. A 3 year old child is brought into ED with a history of having ingested ‘at least’ 20 of her mother’s iron tablets.
a. List 2 clinical features of significant iron toxicity that are likely to be seen within the first 6 hours after the ingestion.
2 of Vomiting, Diarrhoea + Abdominal pain.
b. List 2 investigations that may be helpful in confirming that a patient has ingested iron tablets and when the abnormality is likely to be detected.
2 of :

Abdo XR – iron tablets are radio opaque so will be visible in the stomach on AXR immediately after ingestion and for many hours (?until passed into SI).

Serum iron level - Levels peak in 4 - 6hrs post ingestion.

Levels > 90 micmol/L are thought to be predictive of systemic toxicity.

ABG - an increased AG metabolic acidosis occurs with systemic toxicity, but this won’t be evident until hours (??>6) after the ingestion.

c. List 2 methods of decontamination that may be useful in the management of iron toxicity and their indications for use.

Whole bowel irrigation –recommended for ingestions of > 60mg/kg confirmed on AXR.

Endoscopic removal - if potentially lethal ingestion where WBI fails or is impossible.

d. Name the antidote used to treat iron toxicity and list 2 indications for its use.
Indications for use are:

Iron levels > 90 micmol/L (500micg/dL) - as this predicts systemic toxicity.

Signs of systemic toxicity including -


Metabolic Acidosis

Altered mental status

58. A 32 year old female with a history of bipolar disorder is brought in by ambulance after having taken her weeks worth of lithium. She is alert and orientated and complains of no systemic symptoms at this time.
a. List two early signs or symptoms that suggest a significant amount of Lithium has been ingested acutely and the earliest and most frequent sign of neurological toxicity associated with Lithium ingestion.
GI symptoms ie :




Abdominal pain – occur with significant acute ingestion
Tremor is the earliest sign of neuro toxicity.
b. List 2 tests that may have an influence on further management of a patient presenting after an acute overdose of lithium and explain why they may be relevant.
AXR – may show concretions of tablets in the stomach, indicating need for aggressive GI decontamination.

U + E’s - renal impairment may be an indicator of the need for dialysis. Hypokalaemia can be a complication.

Serum Lithium level - to confirm ingestion, monitor progress & determine safety of medical discharge.


BSL - excludes hypo/hyper-glycaemia as alternative cause for altered mental status.

Paracetamol level - incase polypharmacy ingestion, since paracetamol OD is initially asymptomatic, but can -> hepatic toxicity, and there is an available antidote if used within the first 8 hrs after ingestion.

Alcohol - since often a co-ingestant & may be an alternative cause for altered mental status.
c. List two treatments that may be considered for a patient suffering from acute Lithium toxicity and one possible indication for each.

Volume resuscitation with Normal saline (10-20ml/kg then reassess) – indicated for patients who are volume deplete after significant GI fluid loss & to maintain adequate urine output of > 1ml/kg/hr to ensure adequate Li elimination.

Haemodialysis - primarily useful in those with significant renal impairment +/or in those who present late with clinical features of lithium neurotoxicity.

59. A 20 year old female presents saying she has taken an overdose of aspirin.
a. List 4 features of acute salicylate intoxication and the dose expected to cause severe toxicity.
> 300mg/kg causes severe toxicity.

Symptoms include (Together known as salicylism):

  • Tachypnoea

  • Tinnitus

  • Vomiting

Progressing to altered LOC / seizures / hyperthermia / metabolic acidosis /

pulmonary oedema (10%) and alveolar haemorroage

b. What method of decontamination may be useful in the management of salicylate toxicity and for up to how long after the ingestion?
Activated charcoal – for up to 8 hours post ingestion (as gastric emptying can be delayed after an OD). A repeat dose after 4 hours may also be useful.
c. Name 2 methods of enhancing the elimination of salicylates and list 1 possible indication for each.
Urinary alkalinisation – indicated in any patient who is symptomatic from toxicity.
Haemodialysis – rarely needed but may be considered when (1 of) :

  • -Urinary alkalinization isn’t feasible.

  • Serum salicylate levels > 9.4 mmol/L after an acute ingestion.

  • -Serum salicylate levels rising to >4.4 mmol(60 mg/dl) despite decontamination & urinary alkalinisation.

  • Severe toxicity associated with altered LOC, acidaemia or renal failure

  • -V high serum salicylate levels (>7.2 mmol/L or > 100 mg/dL)

60. This 32 year old male lost control of a high pressure injector and comes in with a wound on his left lower leg.

a. List three complications that are likely to occur within the next 48 hours. (3 marks)

    1. Compartment syndrome

    2. Tissue necrosis from local trauma

    3. Wound infection

b. List the management priorities for this injury. (5 marks)

    1. Analgesia

    2. Elevation

    3. Tetanus

    4. Plain film to rule out other injury

    5. Surgical or orthopaedic admission +/- exploration in OT

c. What factors contribute to damage? (3 marks)

    1. Type of liquid injected

    2. Location of injury

    3. Amount injected

    4. Proximity of nozzle

61. A 34 year old man presents 10 days after a business trip to Papua New Guinea. He has had fevers, malaise, generalised aches and frequent episodes of diarrhoea.
His vital signs are:

HR 130 /min

BP 100/50 mmHg

Temp 38 °C

Sats 98 % on air
a. List 10 potential causes of fever and illness in this man.



GIT infections – cholera, shigella, salmonella, E coli diarrhoea, giardiasis etc

Viral hepatitis

Typhus/rickettsial diseases


Japanese or Australian (Murray Valley) encephalitis

Non-exotic/”normal” infections – LRTI, UTI, STI, cellulitis etc etc etc

b. What blood tests will you request?




Part of fever workup. ?malaria  anaemia


Unwell, diarrhoea  potential derangement


Hepatitis possible

Blood culture

Part of workup

Malaria films

Ideally 3 sets over 48 hours (practice varies)

Falciparum +/- vivax antigen

> 95% sensitive for PF

c. List 5 major complications of severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria.

any 5 of:


Splenic enlargement/rupture

Cerebral malaria – delirium, coma, seizures


Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema


Lactic acidosis

d. What are the two main choices for the urgent initial treatment of severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria?
1. Artesunate (2.4mg/kg IV) then oral

2. Quinine (20mg/kg IVI over 4 hours)

62. A two month old infant has been brought in following a brief seizure. She has had coryzal symptoms and high fevers for two days. She has no relevant past history and no allergies. On examination: HR 110 /min, BP 80/45 mmHg, Temp 39.7°C. There is no rash and no clear focus of infection but the child is ill-appearing and drowsy.

a. What investigations are required?




Other inflammatory markers – CRP etc

At 2 months most would consider too young to assess on purely clinical grounds.

Could comment that WCC/CRP do not confirm/exclude SBI


Sick child – possible abnormality of fluids in/out


Part of septic workup – especially as going to give antibiotics


Part of septic workup. While this could be a “simple febrile convulsion” with another source of sepsis LP is mandatory in this setting

Blood culture

Sepsis workup

A lumbar puncture is performed:

CSF white cell count

Neutrophils 120 (nil)

Lymphocytes 25 (<5)

CSF red cell count 200

CSF Protein 1.2 (< 0.4 g/L)

CSF glucose 0.4 (> 2.5 mmol/L)

b. Interpret these results.
Highly suggestive of bacterial meningitis. Likely a “traumatic tap” but ratio of RBC:WBC still indicates too many WBCs
c. List and justify the medications you would use to treat this child.





Could choose ceftriaxone though under 3 months usually cefotaxime (hepatic immaturity)

50mg/kg 6th hourly
(ceftriaxone 100mg/kg 12th hourly)

Ben Penicillin

To cover listeria

60mg/kg 4th hourly


For resistant S pneu – local practice varies – depends on local prevalence. Some wait for CSF gram stain or antigen studies

30 mg/kg 12th hourly


Give before or with antibiotics. Reduce hearing loss in Hib meningitis (JAMA 1997). Decrease poor outcomes (GOS) & death (NEJM 2002)

0.15 mg/kg


For fever


1   2   3   4   5

The database is protected by copyright © 2017
send message

    Main page